Article 7 of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child declares that a child has the right to a name at birth. What's the motivation behind this, historically? Were or are there societies which do not name their children?

In the post-war context, the UN convention began to address the issue of gender inequality in citizenship laws.

In many states the laws do not allow women the same rights as men in conferring citizenship on children. This creates a situation where women are forced to either stay with abusive husbands, seek out an unwanted marriage, or otherwise attach themselves to a man lest their child be born unregistered and without citizenship.

In The Right to Have Rights: Gender Discrimination in Nationality Laws by Stratton she outlines the case of a woman from Botswana who had children with her American husband and those children were denied citizenship based on Botswana's laws at the time. Her case was brought forth to the Court of Appeal in 1992, the text can be found here: https://www.law.georgetown.edu/rossrights/docs/cases/Dow.html

According to the UNHCR's Background Note on Gender Equality, Nationality laws, and Statelessness, the following states have, to a varying degree, similar laws which promote gender inequality when it comes to citizenship of children: "Bahamas, Malaysia, Bahrain, Mauritania, Barbados, Nepal, Brunei, Darussalam, Oman, Burundi, Qatar, Iran, Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Sierra Leone, Jordan, Somalia, Kuwait, Sudan, Lebanon, Suriname, Liberia (has pledged to reform law which is inconsistent with its constitutional provision), Swaziland, Syria, Libya, Togo, Madagascar, United Arab Emirates"

/r/AskHistorians Thread Parent