Bible condemns MO even without P

thanks for admitting that I am right about the relationship between the noun and verb I referred to. You did not say "necessarily" before, which I think you're conceding in the face of evidence against your claims. i knew I was right, I understand words better than I used to after studying Arabic. I can be and have been wrong, but I was pretty sure there was a relationship. If I had claimed that there is a necessary relationship between that noun and that verb, then your 'necessarily' remark would stand. But I didn't, and you're now making things up. Subtle, but I am calling you out on it.

P.S. I am not saying don't trust a Bible. But there are translation errors. You look at The Message or RASV or even KJV (which was translated from only like 6 manuscripts, all that the Anglicans had from the Vatican after abandoning the Church), and I see a lot of inferences about what Scripture means written down in place of the actual Greek or Aramaic (in the case of the Gospels) words.

Because of this, I think that there are things written in it that are very different from intended meanings, though. For instance, there's nothing about premarital sex. What's referred to uses Latin "fornicare" and Greek "porneia" both of which refer to sex being sold or traded for something. Secondly, in places like Matthew 24:12 the Greek has "anomia" which means "lawlessness" (or maybe better rendered "a man who flouts the law") whereas KJV has the verb translate to 'iniquity', which comes from Latin roots ('non' and 'aequus') meaning "unequal". There are differences. The differences are not flagrant. For instance, KJV doesn't translate 'anomia' to 'lust'. But there are technicalities which don't get treated well in places. I also understand that since the law makes all men equal, some men make themselves unequal by violating the law and setting themselves above it, which translating 'anomia' to a correct conclusion about lawlessness, but is not translating it to 'lawlessness' itself and letting the reader conclude that. Studying the actual vocabulary can lead to.

I do trust my Bible, and I recommend that other people do the same. I just trust it more in its original language.

/r/NoFapChristians Thread Parent