In the Bible, God condones real slavery.

as established previously betrothal constitutes marriage in jewish law therefore all the above quote does is establish that when a woman has only completed the betrothal stage of marriage but has not yet consummated it with her husband consequently cheats on him they (she and the man with whom she cheated) get killed by stoning rather than strangulation

this is very different from the case of the engaged half free woman half slave who due to her dual status is legally incapable of being married and is therefore not commiting adultery when she has sex with someone else

Why is it very different? Because she was a slave?

 

Leviticus 19:20: If a man lies sexually with a woman who is a slave, assigned to another man and not yet ransomed or given her freedom, a distinction shall be made. They shall not be put to death, because she was not free A distinction is made because she is not free.

it is made because she is BOTH not free but also not a slave (she was co-owned and one of her masters freed her but not the other)

Right. Being owned changes the nature of the crime.

 

she is not a slave, she is a war captive who the soldier is permitted to rape once after giving her thirty days to mourn her past life and make herself look ugly until his desire goes away, but once he does rape her he either must marry or free her and as rashi points out he is not permitted to keep her as a slave and sell her - further while the torah permits this it makes it very clear that it is only allowing it in hopes of decreasing war captive rapes and it strongly recommends against actually doing this

A war captive that you can rape and do with as you please and sell as property is a slave, a sex slave. Why can a man who rapes a free woman never divorce her until the end of his days, but a man who rapes a woman he owns just pays a goat, or even if he does marry her can divorce her when he wants for nothing.

 

But if you no longer delight in her, you shall let her go where she wants.

right, and not keep/sell her as a slave

Ok. I'm not sure that not selling your slave-wives somehow justifies having slave-wives. Can you explain that?

 

again this is why commentaries are important

Commentaries are great and can be insightful, but Rashi is extremely biased and removed from the situation by many centuries.

 

so really it has nothing to do with divorce rights it has to do with emancipatory rights

But divorce is impossible or restricted elsewhere, and outside these laws may be compensated. Slave women are exempted from all that. I know that wasn't the author's focal point, but it's in there.

 

Then why all the stoning? how does that question relate to what i said? Because if a goat sacrifice is all that's needed for atonement, it doesn't make sense that God required stoning for atonement for everyone else.

in this case the minimum requirment for atonement is a sacrificial goat however in other cases it would not suffice to atone for the sin

So if you rape a slave woman, God needs a goat mutilated. If you rape a free woman, God requires more. God differentiates between slave and free and cares more about one than the other. This is incriminating.

 

as someone who can actually read the original language

I very much appreciate this and will consider you my superior when it comes to discerning ancient Hebrew, but it isn't definitive. There is disagreement among experts.

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