Why did it take him 3 attempts to perfect his religions?
Great question but wasn't it 4 attempts before Islam? To further it, why did Allah allow 4 (or 3 if I'm wrong) of his previous religions to be corrupted? How do we know the same thing did not happen to Islam? How do we know that Bahai'sm is not the perfect version of Islam now?
Why is it easier for people born in Muslim families to enter heaven than those that don't? (Pakistani has 10.000 times more chance than a Japanese)
To further this great question as well, if Allah sends non-Muslims to hell, why is he biased/racist towards the MENA and south-east Asia Muslim areas region? It is obvious that, apart from the beginning of a religion, that most of its adherents are born into it. Why does he reveal the perfect truth to the Arabs or Pakistanis but not to whites, American Indians, Chinese, or Latinos? Tie this in with predestination. It is obviously far easier for a person who is born into a Muslim family to be a good Muslim than an American raised in, say, a Protestant family. The American will first have to leave Protestantism and Christianity, then they will have to find information on different religions, and out of a fairly large choice of religions, they will have to make a decision on Islam. The Saudi Arabian on the other hand has to just follow what his society/family has taught him.
For a neutral observer, what does Islam have specifically that other religions don't? Is it the (debunked) scientific miracles or some superior knowledge? Somebody who lacks intelligence may not be able to understand the superior knowledge and someone who is unaware of its miracles may not be able to find out about them ever. Is it fair because of stupidity or ignorance (again predestination) in only one field (religion) we punish a non-Muslim, yet we don't punish stupidity or ignorance of some Muslims in other fields (such as mathematics, geography, biology or economics)?
Ask him of the fate of the unlearned as well.