This is completely out of control.

So would you agree that St Thomas More did not make any verbal or written public objections to what Henry VIII was doing?

Are you going to keep ignoring this question?

Here. I am surprised you didn't check out his wiki page, it seems like you would assume he'd be tried and executed for no reason at all.

He refused to sign letters, attend coronations, etc. In short, he declined to participate in various activities, but he made no public demonstrations or anything similar to condemn the king. He basically removed himself from public life, but once Henry VIII was sufficiently angry with him, that was not enough to save him.

Did you bother to read the trial transcript I provided, or the even read the rest of the wiki entry that you posted, which explains exactly what he was charged with?

Why did his prosecutors say:

Attorney: Sir Thomas, tho we have not one Word or Deed of yours to object against you, yet we have your Silence, which is an evident sign of the Malice of your Heart: because no dutiful Subject, being law­fully ask'd this Question, will refuse to answer.

If St Thomas More was going around publicly denouncing the King, why did the prosecution have to use his silence as evidence of his malice? And why would More, in his own defense, tell them to interpret his silence as consent?

Sir Thomas More: Sir, my Silence is no sign of any Malice in my Heart, which the King him­self must Own by my Conduct upon divers Occasions; neither doth it convince any Man of the Breach of the Law: for It is a Maxim amongst the Civilians and Canonists, Qui tacet consentire videtur, he that holds his peace; seems to give his Consent.

Even the wiki entry you just cited makes note of this:

More, relying on legal precedent and the maxim "qui tacet consentire videtur" (literally, who (is) silent is seen to consent), understood that he could not be convicted as long as he did not explicitly deny that the King was Supreme Head of the Church, and he therefore refused to answer all questions regarding his opinions on the subject.

Please allow me to refer to you the analysis of More's trial and the preceding events by Douglas Linder, a professor law who writes:

On the matter of Henry's marriage, More adhered to a policy of silence. He continued to affirm his belief in papal supremacy, but was careful to do so by suggesting that his belief was based on the persuasive power of an earlier writing on the subject written by the king himself...

...When asked to take the oath at Lambeth Palace, More asked to see the texts of both the oath and the Act of Succession. After reading the documents, More told the commissioners that while he would deny nothing contained in the oath, his conscience would not allow him to take it.

If you read Linder's summary, you'll discover that the most likely impetus for Henry's persecution of More was feeling personally slighted by More's absence at the king's wedding to Anne Boleyn, and his resignation from the post of Chancellor: the wedding was in April of 1533, and More resigned in May; the investigation of More's activities to gather evidence for a charge of treason began just a few weeks later.

By contrast, More had refused to sign a letter to the Pope seeking support for the King's annulment back in 1530, but Henry did not give him trouble about it at the time, nor several months later when More expressed his disapproval of the king's attack on Vatican authority.

Please take some time to read in-depth history of the matter written by experts. You will find that you are mistaken: St. Thomas More did not publicly denounce the king, by word or by deed; he was brought to trial on trumped-up charges of treason primarily because Henry VIII was personally angry with him; and he was found guilty and executed not because he had violated any laws, but because the jurors sought to curry favor with the king and because the prosecution produced (obviously) false testimony. If you actually take the time to read the relevant historical documents, this will become quite clear.

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