Does the "-" in prescription always mean myopia?

Thank you for you answer! Yes, I know I'm close to be emmetrope, btw I used glasses to correct that bit of hypermetropia and astigmatism. I don't know what my old prescription was, but I remember something around +0.50. I used that glasses for long time without problems. After the 40, I was no more able to focus well from distance when wearing glasses. There I heard some strange and opposite "theories". My optician told me literally I got "miopizzato" (can't translate from Italian, maybe myopized? but should be like getting myopia) because overuse of computer (??). It make me wondering. A dear friend of mine, a doctor, told me "what's that, myopia is a geometric defect that can't change in adults, you are just losing the ability to accomodate: when you have glasses you experience this in long distance, while without glasses you experience same when looking at close objects". The second explanation made way more sense to me. So I went to no correction, being still able to see at a decent distance. Aging, I started having problems, how it's natural when reading small characters or phone screen, and lately my small laptop. So maybe it was time to get a prescription glass again. The optician made me the test and gave these lenses. I know 0.25 is minimal, but the problem is very disturbing. Maybe something different is wrong, like pupillary distance? I don't know if it can affect vision being a "neutral" zone of the glasses. Should the upper part of the lens be without any distortion or can a progressive lens mess up someway clarity in the top part of the lens? Thanks!

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