Right but his knowledge is infallible because he knows all the outcomes of the initial conditions he creates, therefore it's not knowledge that removes free will but the initial conditions and causal determinism.

I think you're conflating causal determinism and foreknowledge. The issue isn't whether God's foreknowledge of the * causal conditions* He has created removes free will; it's whether God's foreknowledge of an agent's actions removes free will.

The debate over free will and foreknowledge does not mention causal determinism whatsoever because it's simply not relevent. The criticism lies in the mere knowledge of X happening -- not the causal conditions that entailed X.