How does any of this refute the actual main point of my argument? The main point was that the USSR had the ability and means to feed the 5 million people who starved to death and DIDN'T for over a year.

Answer these 2 questions.

Did the USSR have enough food to either A prevent a Famine of 1932-33 or B greatly alleviate the Famine of 1932-33? Sources say yes, so I would hope that would be your answer.

Did the USSR use that Food they have in reserve for the Famine of 1932-33? Sources say no, so I would hope that would be your answer.

Also if you must know I used the USSR own estimates that they had at the time cause that what they would've planned for not the revisions and estimates by the research in circa 1994 (also if you pay close attention it says "our low estimate" which means it could very well have been higher).

Finally if we use the revised data of 1994 about the grain production in 1931/32 (56 million tons for both years) and make an estimate based of the population in Russia in 1931 ~161 million and assume 1 ton feeds 3 people for 1 year. or 56,000,000 x 3 means that the USSR could've feed 168,000,000 people so about 7 million more people than they had + they had a reserve of 4.53 million tons that could've fed an additional 13-14 million + since they were actually importing grains as well and we're not even considering Meat, Dairy, Fruits & Vegetables at this point they should've easily had enough food to prevent 5 million people, or at least the vast majority of them from dying of starvation in 1932/33