How Casual Sex Should Work

Intent is proved all the time in court. Stop acting like it's literally impossible to prove when it absolutely isn't.

Tell me how it would be proven in this case.

If you willingly drank alcohol without and force or pressure from someone else, you accept all responsibility for what you do when you're drunk.

You accept the possibility of things fucking up, but you personally are not responsible for your actions since you did not personally decide to take those actions, drunk you did which as we've established is a different you since they have heavily impaired judgment.

And you're worried about proving intent, what about proving drunkness? How can you prove that you were drunk when you committed a crime. And at what level is someone not responsible for his/her actions? .08? .05? .01?

How can you prove the woman was drunk when she claims to have been "raped"?

There would be a BAC beyond which a person could not be considered to have the judgment necessary to not commit a crime.

I can't fucking believe you dude. I'm going to say it again but INEBRIATION IS NOT AN EXCUSE. EVER. FOR ANY CRIME. The public knows that. The courts know that. And you SHOULD know that but clearly you're too obtuse to.

Tell me, when you are inebriated enough to have poor judgment, how does this whole thing work? The premise is they have poor judgment. How could they possible decide not to commit a crime? If their inebriated mind came to that, their judgment is poor, so they can't decide not to. How are they guilty, then? Aside from the crime having been committed by their physical body, how are they, sober they, guilty of wittingly and deliberately committing the crime?

The only obtuse one here is you.

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