Germs exist because there existance is able to be explained.

So, in your opinion, germs did not exist before their existence was able to be explained. You see, THAT is your logical fallacy. And you JUST KEEP SAYING IT.

Oh my god. Germs existance has always been able to be explained hence the fucking explanation exists! Do you know what able means? It doesnt mean it has happened it means its possible.

So, was the existence of germs dependent on whether someone could back it up? (as you have been saying) Or did they exist before someone could back it up? (as everyone with a shred of common sense believes)

Can you tell me the difference between the statements "we are capable of explaining" and "we have explained" cause i honestly think you believe those are the same sentences.

Still waiting for you to answer these simple off topic questions.

Ypu trying to set up a gotcha moment based on a misinterpretation of my words is sad.