If a man consents to unprotected sex because the woman claims to be on birth control but it turns out she knowingly lied to him, has the man been raped as his consent has been violated? Why or why not?

Yes, but it kind of feels like this is a bad faith question. I have to assume this is related to the assertion that a man removing a condom during sex with a woman is rape. But those issues are vastly different. The worst possible consequence in this post's situation: the woman is pregnant. The man is not obligated to recognize the potential baby, has no legal obligation towards her, and pretty much can entirely leave the situation if he so pleases. This may or may not be what he chooses, but it's his right and an option at his disposal. On the other hand, in the case of "stealthing", the worst possible consequence is an unwanted pregnancy - a change to the woman's body that she didn't consent to. Even if she chooses to get an abortion, it means an invasive, traumatizing medical procedure. And if she can't (for example, if a woman believes there's no way she's pregnant, it happens that she doesn't realize it until it's too late for an abortion), then she has to go through an entire unwanted pregnancy, with all the changes that brings to your body and mind, as well as your entire life (will she be able to keep her job when pregnant? How will her family and friends react?)

So, yes, if you consented to sex under one set of conditions, and you were lied to, that is a breach of your consent and therefore could be considered rape (though I think many men would simply not see it that way, I think it'd be perfectly valid for a man to say this was rape). But it's not really comparable to the opposite situation of a man lying to a woman about using birth control, because the consequences for each act are radically different.

/r/AskReddit Thread