If non-heterosexuality is 'degenerate', how where the ancient greeks (and romans) such beacons of civilisation?

Greco-Roman sexual practices are widely deformed and misinterpreted by popular media. In truth, Ancient Greece & Rome were relatively prudish societies.

In addition, there was condemnation of homosexuality, which was seen as effeminate. People hear of some pedophile behaviour then call the entirety of Greek culture as advocating pedophilia. The Romans for instance did that, to mock the Greeks.

In addition I would strongly ask what people actually deem as "homosexual". Many Americans go to Europe and call any man who dresses well a "Phaggot", the point being that masculinity is defined differently over periods. That doesn't make any of these men any less heterosexual.

For example it's very arguable that a man who rapes another man in ancient times, or generally fucks him into submission, is to be considered a homosexual, as weird as it is. Because in those times (and also in various third world cultures) being in the dominant position with all kinds of living things was considered heterosexuality. To be feminine and submissive you were the homosexual. A man dominated by his woman was considered homosexual.

So the analogy with ancient times is wrong and misguided, not informed.

/r/DebateFascism Thread