Income inequality in India: Is the British Raj to blame?

Mujhe jaanna he ki If you don't have conclusive proof of rising Inequality then how can you come to conclusion that instead Inequality fell?

Secondly if Export of Non Agriculture Product fell and eventually stopped which is High Value-Low Volume and Agriculture increased which is Low Value-High Volume then won't the Income fall? Income depends on Value Addition and there ain't no value addition in agriculture. I can without looking at data tell that Export fell as there was a Famine nearly every Decade.

Thirdly, If the Export of Value Added Products fell compared to Agriculture then how could it lead to creation of Middle Class? With Shortage of Food, Salt and Dismantling of numerous Industry how can a new (Western) Middle Class can come from thin air? The researcher himself says that there was falling yield in Agriculture.

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