I've heard the claim that in the middle ages, married women were "encouraged" to take female lovers rather than male since there would be no risk of pregnancy. Is there any truth to this at all?

Who is encouraging them? Where and when are you talking about? Finally we need to ask - are the sources going to be honest with us?

It absolutley did happen in ancient times, Sparta being a place where it was truly embraced but its not unheard of through history.

In the middle ages its hard to say. (I am not a historian and am just giving an opinion) I don't think it would have been common. It certainly wasn't acceptable in moat places. The access to privacy was far less than it is now and the monotheistic religions prevalent in Europe and the Middle East were intolerant of adultery let alone homosexuality.

That said...we will always operate on limited information because the LBGQT 'scene' was kept quiet and had to stay underground. No recorded info means we can only ever make educated guesses.

/r/AskHistorians Thread