Kant’s Categorical Imperative Formulations

Say if the maxim was “whenever I am poor, I will take others’ property” (which I think is generally representative of the scenario), I could will this maxim to be universal law, but everything would be in constant flux because the poor and rich will keep reversing roles.

However, it would be a contradiction in will because by taking others’ property, you will that you want to escape financial distress, yet you are susceptible to being a target (if someone takes your property) and being put back into financial distress.

I think one would have an imperfect duty since it fails the contradiction of will test, but does this mean the universal law fails (if one of the contradiction fails)?

/r/askphilosophy Thread Parent