Is the Marxist-Leninist perspective of Stalin particularly accurate?

My point is that “Stalin didn’t commit ‘genocide’ because he actively fought to exclude soviet crimes from international agreement that we use as the dictionary definition of genocide.” Is a really weak argument that carries no moral significance.

These aren’t independent actions they’re directly causally related. Soviet actions are the direct reason why you get to run a “look at the dictionary” argument (Soviet’s wouldn’t sign unless that was dropped), the actual history of terms and agreements are relevant to interpreting them...don’t you agree?

This doesn’t just apply to holodomir.

Are you honestly trying to reductio ad absurdum the concept of mass killing of enemies designated on grounds designated by political ideology? That’s not even a good version of absurdity or obvious reasons.

/r/badhistory Thread Parent