OP and everyone who has responded hasn’t read anything substantial on AGP and it shows.

Go read the Wikipedia and report back.

AGP doesn’t persist and often results in greater dysphoria than in the beginning.

HSTS and AGP are uncorrelated with dysphoria experienced.

AGP is misinterpreted because the definitions are given over a lossy and subjective medium, language. Only when you can argue that all people construct fantasies in the same manner and project them in the same manner in their heads, and only then you can argue that they are experiencing romantic attraction towards themselves being women.

My hypothesis:

The arousal AGPs experience isn’t towards themselves being women, but towards the concept of femininity because that is associated with their erotic target.

In the absence of a woman to make the concept concrete the person projects those behaviours onto themselves.

This made Blanchard believe that this is a fantasy towards one’s self hence the auto.

What is happening is that not everyone’s process of imagining things is the same, and it certainly isn’t perfect.

Given these three MtFs, why is one AGP and the rest aren’t?

• Has aphantasia and can’t imagine himself as anything
• Has trouble imagining things, so he recalls an approximately correct image and modifies it until it reaches the target
• Has perfect imagination and can create an image from nothing

So if we take the second, and ask him to create the image of a sexy naked woman, he may start from his own and morph it to reach that of a woman’s.

The latter creates the image directly.

Why is the second agp?!