A pharmacist suggested I take a prescription elsewhere because the "computers were down", the manager caught me on the way out of the store and told me the pharmacist was lying and to go ahead and leave my prescription. Why would the pharmacist do that?

I get the impression my psychiatrist is mostly retired and doesn't have very many patients so there is very little chance he has loads of drug addled patients turning in his scripts around this very large town (LA).

I found my psychiatrist by calling my insurance (which is a pretty good ppo) and asking for practices that specialize in adult ADD with therapy (not just pharmocological treatment) because I was hoping the stimulants would be a stop-gap. Unfortunately I overestimated the PPO refferal services and the list they gave me wasn't actually for specialists (the only specialist I could find didn't take my PPO) so I just went with the PPO's list and got this guy who is unlikely to be running any type of mill.

Would you happen to know why I might be being downvoted for this question. Is the post inappropriate post for this subreddit? It makes me wonder if there is just a stigma against adults taking ADD meds and maybe that is connected to the pharmacist's decision? Perhaps not an irrational stigma even, it could be a large proportion of adults getting ADD medication set off red flags enough that it's just assumed by most pharmacists there is abuse going on?

I don't mean to imply I've suffered some great injustice, I was just wierded out by the whole experience. The possibilities raised here are all reasonable guesses, but none of them fit this instance so I'm still unsure what to think about it. I'd filled the script at the pharmacy with no issue a little over a month ago, so not a new patient, I don't have any other scripts, (I'm not coming in with opiate scripts on other days), I'm pretty sure I don't look drug-addled (I doubt the manager---who seemed well-spoken---would have gone out of her way to tell me something that implied she thought the pharmacist was being innappropriate if I did.) And I'm pretty sure I'm not getting the script from a mill.

The only thing I can think of is the doctor writes in this odd archaic way you might expect from a guy who probably learned his trade when dense psychoanalyitic langauge was all the rage. For example he wrote on the script "Take 1 pill when arising", which come to think about it could look like an ignorant drug addict trying to sound like they are writing in the learned langauge of a doctor, when most doctors today just write in common english. Could that have been it?

/r/pharmacy Thread Parent