Why was the PIE movement to the west a violent invasion vs to the east where it was a slow migration?

So, there's a problem here with a question that starts with so many embedded assumptions -- many dubious. This reads more like soapboxing than a legitimate question-- you want to talk a lot about some unspecified "what I may have read" and "evidence" . . . but interestingly not one single actual reference. Is there a specific journal reference or book that you're asking about?

Just looking at some of the assumptions on which you seem to have set your mind

The Yamnaya men that moved into Europe replaced the population and spread their genes, according to what I've read, violently, killing the men and breeding with the women.

"according to what I've read"? What would that be?

If I understand what I think you're talking about (?) recent research suggests otherwise

Sharma, Indu, et al. "Ancient human migrations to and through Jammu Kashmir-India were not of males exclusively." Scientific reports 8.1 (2018): 1-9.

Here's a different idea. How 'bout starting with David Reich's 2018 book "Who We are and How We Got Here". It solid, recent, and well sourced, and then move on to more recent journal literature. What you'll find is that as much as is known -- and paleogenetics has been an extraordinary tool-- you should consider just how many empty spaces there are. Every month brings with it new discoveries, from recovered genetic material, and many of them reshape our understanding of population movements.

So this is a story to be written in pencil, because we're going to need that eraser . . .

/r/AskAnthropology Thread