Can you elaborate? I believe you, I’d just love the source or clarification. I’ve worked in branding and ID for a long time, I have my JD but am not a trademark attorney (I’m not practicing at all because it’s depressing and I’d rather sit at home writing code with a cat), and this is generally not how it works, unless brands are in direct competition or are big enough to confuse people (Apple v Apple as someone mentioned, or Coke/Aspirin protecting themselves from becoming a generic name). Nobody’s going shopping for a Chevy Corvette and coming home with a Risian one. If this was legal advice I’ll take your word for it, but I’m genuinely curious why this is an exception to the rule.