How the hell did you get that from this scripture? "City rape" reads - if a married girl commits adultery because she doesn't shout for help (read, was complicit) when there were people around who could help (in the city) then they were both killed because she was a willing participant - she was an adulterer.

Ok first stoning adulterers is still murder,and women who have unsanctioned premarital sex are also murdered this way historically.

Second I think you answered your own question, the author of the passage assumes that with a 100% success rate a woman can call for help in a city, and as such can't be raped in a city. However we know that rape happens in cities and that misogynistic policy of placing the burden of proof on rape victim while not valuing her account, results in rape victims being murdered on top of women who have unsanctioned sex. Further fear of being murdered also discourages women from reporting rape

However, if a married girl is raped where no one is around to help her, then the rapist is killed.

the passage on country rape was given to give you context. In this case the girl is allowed to be believed if she claims she raped, but likely she will still be blamed.

At first it looked like you were pointing out how they were wrong about the scripture ... but then this comment? Where does it say the rapist pays some money?

22:19 And they shall amerce him in an hundred shekels of silver, and give them unto the father of the damsel, because he hath brought up an evil name upon a virgin of Israel: and she shall be his wife; he may not put her away all his days.

If there is scripture like that, it likely only applies to unwed women

Obviously otherwise its murder by stoning, and it often is/was murder by stoning for unwed women who decide to have sex with people of their choosing if you look at Islamic world.