When a language changes script such as arabic to latin in Turkey and chinese to latin in Vietnam, what else changes? Does it impact on spoken language at all?

For what it's worth, the beginner's Hindi school books I have, as a rule never make the distinction between these phonemes.

Thus, many (especially non-native) learners of Hindi may learn the word "ख़रगोश" (khargosh, starting with the sound x) as "खरगोश" (khargosh, starting with the sound kʰ). Whereas an Urdu book would always write the word as "خرگوش" (khargosh, starting with the sound x).

Over time, this would lead to divergence in pronunciation as especially non-native speakers of Hindi would not be exposed to the "original" pronunciation very often, and they would speak as they were taught.

Ultimately, that doesn't quite answer your question of whether those differences are pre-existing (that is, do Hindi school books write "ख़रगोश" as "खरगोश" because to begin with, the standardized Hindi language had less influence from Farsi/Arabic?). But it would make sense to me as a way that the script difference continues to reinforce the divergence between the two standardized forms of the language, especially as it is taught to non-native speakers.

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