What separated Carthage from other Phoenician colonies that allowed it to be so successful?

A follow up question relating specifically to Carthaginian society/decline following the 1st Punic War, if anyone can answer;

I have read Livy and Polybius' writings on the Punic Wars and the society of Carthage, as well as publications by modern historians. One thing that has puzzled me is the inability of the Carthaginians to rebuild their fleet following the 1st Punic War. Carthage had, only a generation before the 2nd Punic War, the greatest and most formidable fleet in the Mediterranean. It is mentioned by many historians that by the start of the 2nd Punic War, while having experienced land commanders such as Hannibal and his ancestors, Carthage no longer had a navy that could rival Rome. Rome had no navy until a few decades before, yet now had superiority over Carthage who had for centuries always had a strong naval force.

Why could Carthage not reconstruct a great navy? Surely it would have been possible, given the great wealth of the city even after the 1st Punic War? Rome also lost many hundreds of warships during the course of the first war, yet with great zeal and determination was able to rebuild by securing funding from allies and eventually private citizens. Was Carthage unable to rebuild her fleet because she was simply unwilling to spend the money? Livy and Polybius tell us a great deal about Carthaginian society, as have many historians, and it seems to be almost the direct opposite of Rome. Citizens rarely fought in wars, with most focused on merchant enterprises rather than fighting. I know a large reason for the victory of Rome in the first Punic War was the unwillingness of Punic citizens and aristocrats to participate in the war effort.

Would really appreciate if somebody who has studied the war in detail could give a follow up!

/r/AskHistorians Thread