You thought that I implied that Germany could have beaten anyone 1v1 in WW2. I can't recall having made that argument in my post but then I realized the odd wording when I talked briefly about the US and Germany in WW2. I don't know why I wrote it the way I did but what I meant to say is that if the US had any hope of winning against Germany single handedly in a war, it would have been more likely in WW2 than in WW1 - my reason for this conclusion being that the US was far more prepared for war before WW2 than before WW1 and that the Nazi German army was really a shadow of the colossus that was the WW1 German army.

Secondly, you said that Germany would not have won a war against the US because of Germany's weak navy and the logistical problem of moving troops and material across the Atlantic. I agree with that logic. But I should have pointed out that i took the liberty of ignoring the ocean problem. If it were strictly a land war between the two countries as if they were neighbors or at least shared the same continent, the US would have had no chance whatsoever.