I think crime statistics are generally driven by population and poverty. But even if it was only by population it should scale proportionally no?

Isn't that the whole point I am trying to make here ?

I don’t think it was a sweeping generalization because usually a larger population 1bn+ in india will always have more crime of a similar nature than the US with a third of the population. I wouldn’t take statistics at face value for all countries.

It tells the probability of a woman being unsafe. For example, countries A (US) and B (India) with 100 and 10,000 women might have witnessed 10 and 50 rapes in a given year. Looking at incidents of crime might suggest that country B has a bigger rape problem. But this is a wrong conclusion. Women have a bigger threat of getting raped in country A as 10% of them were victims of the crime. This figure would be just 0.5% in country B.