at any time prior to the consumer's signing of a vehicle purchase agreement

I missed this whole thread, but then saw the link to /u/dieabetic's post about this above.

Re-read this quoted section. I think what happened (and this is not legal advice, not biding, you should always lawyer up and consult the gym, and dump the other person, etc.,.) but I think the person in the other situation signed the vehicle purchase agreement and then failed to get financing, correct?

So the condition precedent that the vehicle purchase agreement was already passed? Or am I getting the underlying facts wrong?

This is why if you go to buy a home, you ALWAYS make the contract contingent on securing financing.

Secondly, even as a lawyer, I never got my deposit back on my Fisker Karma. What was I going to do, put a claim in the the bankruptcy court?

I think that's one of the reasons, among many, that things don't always turn out the way they should. And it's the reason you should never take advice from the internet about the law. At all. Ever.