"Coupled with the fact that he refuses to use Spanish with people who respond in Spanish and even tries to dissuade people from using Spanish by saying "reading english is good for me". Please. Someone in a dire situation like this is not going to purposely impair getting accurate information so he can "practice his English"."
he never refused to speak spanish, he just responded back in english (maybe because he's posting somewhere where everybody speaks english?)
by saying "reading english is good for me" he OBVIOUSLY just means that he can do it, and its no problem for him compared to writing and speaking it. you think a linguist of all people who sounds so sure of themselves that they know this is fake would be able to get what he is saying there.
I won't even address the socioeconomic improbability of OP having a computer available to him for hours or the fact that his "friend" told him Reddit was a great resource for getting help with these issues (yeah, right)
why is the linguist bringing up all these other reasons why it is fake, all of which dont even make sense. he interpreted something really simple in a silly way, and now wants you to know how improbable it is for this kid to have a computer. if its so obvious by the way he is speaking that its fake, why do you need to bring up all this other stuff up?
not to mention the commenter below says it sounds like spanglish to him. who are you going to believe the linguist or somebody who is actually familiar with spanglsih speakers. i just dont get why people are so quick to say it could be fake and then not give any good evidence for why its fake. if its so fake, why not show us how a normal english learning spanish speaker would express themselves.