I meant it cannot be linked to a hardship, something very specific. You know, like slavery. Like Jim Crow. Like redlining. Like differences in sentences between races. Etc. etc.

If you can list specific events that led to men speaking this way, I'll change my mind. Otherwise it makes no sense to make this comparison.

Obviously I agree this language is a learned cultural behavior that comes from privilege (or rather, knowing they won't get in trouble). But isn't that the same as me sitting here saying, "Men talk this way because the patriarchy." Like... yeah... sure... but that is no where near as close to being able to point to dozens and dozens of specific events in history that explain why a certain group of people ended up far more poor than others.