no they didn't, the bolsheviks were aware that they were essentially the "first torch" but were banking on revolution in germany which is why they spent so much effort connecting with german communists.

in fact marx actually predicted that the first european proletarian revolution would be in russia and that it would launch a revolutionary wave across europe and the wider world which is exactly what happened

The Communist Manifesto had, as its object, the proclamation of the inevitable impending dissolution of modern bourgeois property. But in Russia we find, face-to-face with the rapidly flowering capitalist swindle and bourgeois property, just beginning to develop, more than half the land owned in common by the peasants. Now the question is: can the Russian obshchina, though greatly undermined, yet a form of primeval common ownership of land, pass directly to the higher form of Communist common ownership? Or, on the contrary, must it first pass through the same process of dissolution such as constitutes the historical evolution of the West?

The only answer to that possible today is this: If the Russian Revolution becomes the signal for a proletarian revolution in the West, so that both complement each other, the present Russian common ownership of land may serve as the starting point for a communist development.

https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1848/communist-manifesto/preface.htm#preface-1882