the word “thigh” is often used in the Bible as a euphemism for various reproductive organs, in this case it may mean the uterus, placenta or an embryo
Source?
If the fetus aborts as a result of the ordeal this presumably confirms her guilt of adultery, otherwise her innocence is presumed if the fetus does not abort
Even if the child dies this is in no way akin to performing an abortion, this ritual is only done because of suspicion of immorality and the death of the child would be a punishment, the women would be punished for her infidelity by the death of a child. The woman was pregnant through an adulterous relationship, a sin that normally carried the death penalty (Leviticus 20:10). But because no witnesses came forward, the woman was given an opportunity to clear her name and ease her husband’s suspicions by swearing before him, a priest, and God that she was innocent of adultery. If she lied in this situation, the subsequent miscarriage is clearly a result of her blatant rebellion of swearing falsely before the Lord in addition to her adultery, knowing the consequences
That… is performing an abortion
It’s not though, because the passage isn’t even about a child dying which I’ll explain
and if that’s only God doing it.. then why is the Priest making and administering it, that the entire process depends on him
It is God doing it, that is what’s written in the passage “the Lord make you a curse and an oath among your people, when the Lord makes your thigh fall away and your body swell.” This is directly God taking away life, not the Priest. It’s not the actual concoction that would cause the death but the sinfulness of the woman and her rebellion against God
And when he has made her drink the water, then, if she has defiled herself and has broken faith with her husband, the water that brings the curse shall enter into her and cause bitter pain, and her womb shall swell, and her thigh shall fall away, and the woman shall become a curse among her people. But if the woman has not defiled herself and is clean, then she shall be free and shall conceive children. - Numbers 5:27-28
So if she’s not guilty she will be able to conceive children, but if she is guilty she will lose the child? Doesn’t make much sense given the context of the passage, what makes most sense is a woman becoming infertile and thus a “curse among her people” if found guilty.
The most interesting thing about this is, that whichever view is correct miscarriage or not it doesn’t give details on how to perform an abortion, but perform a ritual that would end in either joy (having kids) or punishment (not having kids, infertility or the death of a child)