No, because it doesn't make sense. ...but, let me try.

This assertion comes from trying to solve for the values of infinite series and in the case of divergent infinite series, when you assign a specific number to the answer, it is a conditional answer, not a mathematical solution. It's like trying to say "∞ - ∞ = 0"....well, no, it isn't. if the first infinite is the sum of all even numbers and the second is the sum of all integers, the first ∞ is larger by an infinite amount and therefore in this case, "∞ - ∞ = ∞". Those two summation series are probably ones you can picture adding up on their way to positive infinite, however, when your series summation is something like "1 - 2 + 3 - 4 + 5 - 6 ...", you could picture the oscillation of the partial sum after any certain number of terms, but the final answer is far from intuitive. You can present this series by asking what do you get by adding all the odd numbers and then subtracting all the even numbers ? ∞ - ∞ = ? Are those two infinities equal? Which one is bigger? The answer isn't intuitive.

In many cases, divergent series can be simplified as the add/subtract/multiply/divide of different infinities and people try to extrapolate the "real" answer from multiple partial answers. Depending on how to do this, you can get different answers. This can be valid, but conditional. As to how and when these partial answers can be used for a valid total solution, gets into a lot more complex area of math, which I'm not going to get into since I'm trying to keep it simple and also because it has been a long time since I've taking these kinds of math classes. ;) I guess it got a bit long winded, but i hope this at least helps to understand what kind of statement is being made when someone says things like this.

TLDR; it's math manipulation, not a direct solution to a mathematical equation. If you like math tricks, here is the video to demonstrate this assertion.. Infinities be crazy.