That is not the plain meaning of the text. From an article I've linked above:

The argument of homosexual sex performed in conjunction with idol worship and/or shrine prostitution is clearly one of eisegesis (reading into the text a person’s presuppositions and agenda), as is the idea that Paul is addressing ‘unnatural’ homosexuality vs. one that is ‘natural.’ Why think this assertion is true?

Let’s first ask, why does Paul specifically cite homosexuality vs. all the other sexual sins that were committed at the time? The reason he does this is because it follows his argument from nature that begins in vs. 19. Paul is saying that in the same way people naturally know God by instinct, with creation itself demonstrating God’s existence through what He’s made, that people naturally and instinctively know right sexual practice because of how the human body is made.

Just as idolatry is contrary to what God intended when He created humanity, so too homosexuality is contrary to nature in that it does not represent what God intended when He made men and women with physical bodies that have a ‘natural’ way of interacting with each other and a ‘natural’ desire for the opposite sex.