Can a Homosexual Be a Christian? | Q&A

Flavius Josephus, a 1st century pharisee, wrote a book defending the Jewish religion. In it he explains the Jewish laws regarding marriage, and in that discussion he mentions the infamous Levitical law on (supposedly) homosexuality:

But, then, what are our laws about marriage? That law owns no other mixture of sexes but that which nature hath appointed, of a man with his wife, and that this be used only for the procreation of children. But it abhors the mixture of a male with a male; and if any one do that, death is its punishment. (https://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0215%3Abook%3D2%3Awhiston+section%3D25)

Now, Josephus is writing hundreds of years after the composition of Leviticus. But I think that it's interesting that he seems to understand this as a very general ban on gay sex.

The general explanation I've seen from pro-gay Christians is that this law was only about some cultic practices. If so, then that's totally lost on that ancient pharisee. For one he relates this law to marriage (and not e.g. worship of other gods). And he talk about "male with male" (and not e.g. male with boy), presumably. And the talk about male-wife being the one natural reminds me of Romans 1.

So for what it's worth, Josephus would indicate that the Levitical laws are against gay sex in general, and not just cultic practices or "abusive" sex or whatever.

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