There's a large difference in going to the office of a medically licensed individual and assessing his advice as accurate than it is talking to random internet strangers. The types of comparisons being drawn in this thread are ridiculous.

Furthermore, all of the comments posted prior to the comment of mine that you quoted above were in fact posted by redditors that admit either in their comments to me or their comment histories that they are not lawyers.

I drove a car at night, just like I had been any other time there was somewhere I needed to go at a late hour, before and since being on the drug, and just like millions of people do every night. Even at the time of the incident, I could not tell any difference in my night vision from before. It wasn't until after the cop pulled away and I went back to verify that there actually was a prohibited u-turn sign (I had so completely missed it that I was in disbelief that there was one at all), that it occurred to me that it might have been a combination of the angle and potentially the drug. Since that night, I have avoided driving at night even more than I had before.

I am not sure why this subreddit is treating me as if I got behind the wheel of a car at nighttime while aware of the fact that my ability to drive had been inhibit. Even still, I can not tell a difference in my nighttime vision and only assume that it must be decreased after what happened. I have changed my behavior accordingly.

While I had been informed of the low possibility of decreased night vision, there was no other evidence that I was being affected by that potential side-effect.

So to you and everyone else in this thread that is acting as if I knowingly put myself and others in this dangerous situation, who are disregarding the multiple comments in which I state that I usually do not drive at night and have since actively avoided it, and who are treating me as if I was a drunk river or a driver under the influence of narcotics, FUCK YOU.