That simply does not follow. Racism is discrimination based on race.

That’s what affirmative action does, it is definitionally racist.

What happens if you apply the bizarre proprietary definition you’ve just wheeled out to other situations?

Imagine an individual discriminates based on race, sees someone of a different race, uses hateful slurs and then causes them serious physical harm. That would seem to be an awful case of racist hate crime, but you would have to say ‘nah, it’s not an ideology designed to harm a class of persons so it’s not racism’. At least you would have to say it if you stuck to the definition you just implied. I can’t help but suspect the goalposts would mysteriously shift if we were talking about that kind of situation.